Comprehensive Medical MCQs Review: Test Your Knowledge
Welcome to our comprehensive Medical MCQs Review, designed to help medical students and professionals prepare effectively for exams. This collection features 70 carefully selected multiple-choice questions covering key topics in medicine, surgery, obstetrics, pediatrics, and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a concise explanation to enhance your understanding and retention of critical concepts.
Regular practice with high-quality MCQs is one of the most effective methods to prepare for medical examinations. Our review allows you to test your knowledge, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence in your clinical reasoning skills.
How to Use This Medical MCQs Review
Maximize your learning by actively engaging with each question
To get the most benefit from this Medical MCQs Review, we recommend the following approach:
- Attempt to answer each question before looking at the explanation
- Understand the reasoning behind both correct and incorrect options
- Review related concepts when you encounter challenging questions
- Track your performance to identify weak areas that need more focus
- Revisit difficult questions periodically to reinforce learning
This active learning approach will help you develop stronger clinical reasoning skills and better prepare you for exam scenarios where quick, accurate decision-making is essential.
Surgery & General Medicine MCQs
Question 1: Ureteric Obstruction
Most common cause of ureteric obstruction is:
a) Calculus
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: a) Calculus
Explanation: Ureteric obstruction is most commonly caused by ureteric stones (calculi). These stones form in the kidney and travel down the ureter, potentially causing blockage. Other less common causes include tumors, blood clots, and external compression.
Question 2: Chemical Burns Treatment
Initial treatment of chemical burns?
a) Apply ice
b) Covering the area
c) Remove the dressing
d) Excessive flushing with water
Correct Answer: d) Excessive flushing with water
Explanation: Immediate and copious irrigation with water is the standard first-line management for chemical burns. This helps to dilute and remove the chemical agent, minimizing tissue damage. The irrigation should continue for at least 15-20 minutes.
Question 3: Portocaval Anastomosis
Site of portocaval anastomosis?
a) Anal canal
b) Fundus of stomach
c) Duodenum
d) Jejunum
Correct Answer: a) Anal canal
Explanation: Portocaval anastomoses occur at several sites in the body. One important site is at the anal canal, where the superior rectal veins (part of the portal system) communicate with the middle and inferior rectal veins (part of the systemic circulation).
Obstetrics & Gynecology MCQs
Question 8: Post-Coital Bleeding
40‑year‑old lady with post‑coital bleeding — most important investigation?
a) Ultrasound
b) Biopsy of cervix
c) Pap smear
d) MRI
Correct Answer: c) Pap smear
Explanation: In a 40-year-old woman with post-coital bleeding, a Pap smear is the most important initial investigation to rule out cervical cancer. Post-coital bleeding can be a warning sign of cervical pathology, and cytological examination helps detect abnormal cells early.
Question 9: Vesicovaginal Fistula
Most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in Pakistan:
a) Pelvic inflammatory disease
b) Carcinoma bladder
c) Endometriosis
d) Obstetric injury
Correct Answer: d) Obstetric injury
Explanation: In Pakistan and many developing countries, obstetric causes, especially prolonged obstructed labor, are the most common causes of vesicovaginal fistula. This differs from developed countries where surgical complications are more common causes.
Microbiology & Infectious Diseases MCQs
Question 12: Bacterial Toxins
Toxin production does NOT play a role in pathogenesis of:
a) Tetanus
b) Clostridium difficile
c) Cholera
d) Haemophilus influenzae
Correct Answer: d) Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation: Unlike the other listed bacteria, Haemophilus influenzae does not primarily cause disease through toxin production. Its pathogenicity is related to capsular components, adhesins, and invasive properties rather than toxin-mediated damage.
Question 13: Acute Infection Response
Acute consequence of infection:
a) Muscle wasting and weight loss
b) Liver cirrhosis
c) Fever
d) Guillain-Barré
Correct Answer: c) Fever
Explanation: Fever is an acute physiological response to infection, triggered by pyrogens that reset the hypothalamic thermostat. The other options represent chronic or post-infectious complications rather than immediate responses to infection.
4.8
User Rating
Content Quality
4.8
Explanation Clarity
4.7
Exam Relevance
4.9
Neurology & Systemic Conditions MCQs
Question 19: Spinal Cord Lesions
Intrinsic spinal cord lesions:
a) Motor and sensory isolated
b) Proximal > distal weakness
c) Weakness usually bilateral
d) Bladder involvement only if lumbosacral
Correct Answer: c) Weakness usually bilateral
Explanation: Intrinsic spinal cord lesions typically cause bilateral weakness because they affect the tracts on both sides of the spinal cord. This is in contrast to nerve root lesions, which tend to cause unilateral symptoms in the distribution of the affected root.
Question 20: Spastic Paraparesis
Causes of bilateral spastic paraparesis:
a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
b) Cerebellar disease
c) Peripheral neuropathy
d) Parkinson’s disease
Correct Answer: a) Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, affecting the posterior and lateral columns. This results in bilateral spastic paraparesis due to involvement of the corticospinal tracts.
Pediatrics & Nutrition MCQs
Question 22: Milk Composition
Milk with lowest protein concentration:
a) Buffalo
b) Cow
c) Goat
d) Human
Correct Answer: d) Human
Explanation: Human milk has the lowest protein concentration compared to milk from other mammals. This lower protein content is actually optimal for human infants, as it matches their growth rate and kidney function capabilities.
Question 23: Infant Development
Baby usually starts crawling at:
a) 6 months
b) 9 months
c) 12 months
d) 15 months
Correct Answer: a) 6 months
Explanation: Most infants begin to crawl around 6 months of age, though there is normal variation in this developmental milestone. Some babies may skip crawling entirely and move directly to pulling up and walking.
Pharmacology & Therapeutics MCQs
Question 27: Pharmacological Concepts
Science dealing with mechanism of drug and effect on body:
a) Pharmacodynamics
b) Pharmacokinetics
c) Pharmacology
d) Pharmacy
Correct Answer: a) Pharmacodynamics
Explanation: Pharmacodynamics specifically studies how drugs act on the body, including their biochemical and physiological effects and mechanisms of action. This differs from pharmacokinetics, which studies how the body processes drugs (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion).
Question 28: Antibiotic Side Effects
Drug that can produce bone marrow suppression:
a) Ofloxacin
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Amoxicillin
d) Cefradine
Correct Answer: b) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Chloramphenicol can cause bone marrow suppression, which may manifest as aplastic anemia. This serious adverse effect is dose-related and can occur even with topical application. It’s one of the main reasons chloramphenicol use is limited in many countries.
Frequently Asked Questions About Medical MCQs
How should I approach studying with MCQs?
The most effective approach is to first understand the underlying concepts, then use MCQs to test your knowledge. Try to answer questions before looking at the explanations, analyze why incorrect options are wrong, and revisit difficult questions periodically to reinforce learning.
How many MCQs should I practice daily?
Quality matters more than quantity. Start with 20-30 questions daily, focusing on understanding each one thoroughly rather than rushing through many questions. Gradually increase as your stamina improves, but always prioritize comprehension over speed.
What makes a good Medical MCQ review resource?
Look for resources that provide clear explanations for both correct and incorrect options, cover a broad range of topics, include high-yield concepts, and reflect the style and difficulty of your target exam. Updated content that reflects current medical knowledge is also essential.
General Medicine & Clinical Skills MCQs
Question 31: Dermatological Conditions
What is albinism?
a) Patchy pigmentation
b) Patchy white spots
c) Generalized discoloration
d) Generalized hypopigmentation
Correct Answer: d) Generalized hypopigmentation
Explanation: Albinism is a genetic disorder characterized by generalized hypopigmentation due to defects in melanin production. It affects the skin, hair, and eyes, resulting in reduced or absent pigmentation throughout the body.
Question 35: Neurological Disorders
Mask‑like face and resting tremor — diagnosis:
a) Cerebellar tumor
b) Medullary syndrome
c) Parkinson disease
d) Pontine hemorrhage
Correct Answer: c) Parkinson disease
Explanation: The combination of mask-like face (hypomimia) and resting tremor are classic features of Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms result from dopamine deficiency in the basal ganglia, particularly the substantia nigra.
Contribute to Our Medical MCQs Collection
Help fellow medical students by submitting your own questions with explanations.Submit Questions
Respiratory & Gastrointestinal MCQs
Question 44: Malabsorption Syndromes
Weight loss & malabsorption feature of:
a) Small bowel bacterial overgrowth
b) Pernicious anemia
c) Lymphocytic colitis
d) Lactose intolerance
Correct Answer: a) Small bowel bacterial overgrowth
Explanation: Small bowel bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) causes malabsorption and weight loss due to bacteria consuming nutrients, damaging the intestinal mucosa, and deconjugating bile acids. This leads to impaired fat absorption and vitamin deficiencies.
Question 45: Food Intolerances
Lactose intolerance causes diarrhoea when consuming:
a) Fruit
b) Meat
c) Milk
d) Bread
Correct Answer: c) Milk
Explanation: Lactose intolerance causes diarrhea when consuming milk and dairy products due to deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which is needed to digest lactose (milk sugar). The undigested lactose draws water into the intestine and is fermented by bacteria, causing symptoms.
Public Health & Miscellaneous MCQs
Question 55: Immunization Assessment
Single most rapid clue to community BCG immunization status:
a) Mantoux test
b) Active TB patients
c) BCG scar mark
d) X‑ray chest
Correct Answer: c) BCG scar mark
Explanation: The BCG scar is a visible mark left after BCG vaccination, typically on the upper arm. It provides a quick, visual indication of past immunization without requiring tests or equipment, making it the most rapid way to assess vaccination status in community surveys.
Question 54: Occupational Health
Best recommendation for textile industry worker with asthma:
a) Regular use of inhalers
b) Use of face mask
c) Change of occupation
d) Increased physical activity
Correct Answer: c) Change of occupation
Explanation: For a textile worker with asthma, changing occupation is the best recommendation because continued exposure to textile dust and chemicals will likely worsen the condition despite medication or protective equipment. Avoidance of triggers is the most effective intervention.
Benefits of MCQ Practice
- Efficient assessment of knowledge across multiple topics
- Improves clinical reasoning and decision-making skills
- Simulates actual exam conditions and question formats
- Helps identify knowledge gaps for targeted study
- Enhances retention through active recall
Limitations to Consider
- May encourage recognition over deeper understanding
- Can’t fully assess clinical skills or complex reasoning
- Quality varies widely between different resources
- May create false confidence if questions are too easy
- Requires supplementation with other study methods
Effective Strategies for Medical MCQs Review
Spaced Repetition
Review questions at increasing intervals to strengthen memory retention. Start with daily review of difficult concepts, then gradually extend to weekly and monthly reviews as mastery improves.
Active Recall
Test yourself regularly without looking at answers first. This strengthens neural pathways more effectively than passive reading and better simulates exam conditions.
Error Analysis
Keep a log of missed questions and analyze patterns in your errors. This helps identify knowledge gaps and misconceptions that require focused attention.
Conclusion: Mastering Medical MCQs
Regular practice with high-quality Medical MCQs is a proven strategy for exam success. This review has covered 70 essential questions across multiple specialties, providing you with both knowledge assessment and explanations to enhance understanding.
Remember that effective MCQ practice involves active engagement, understanding the reasoning behind answers, and identifying patterns in both correct and incorrect options. By incorporating these questions into your study routine and using the strategies we’ve outlined, you’ll be well-prepared for your medical examinations.
Continue to expand your knowledge base, practice regularly with varied question types, and focus on understanding core concepts rather than memorizing isolated facts. This approach will not only help you succeed in exams but also build the clinical reasoning skills essential for your medical career.